Am Fam Physician. 2014 Aug 1;90(3):181-182.
A 21-year-old man presented with fever, cough, arthralgias, and bilateral lower extremity rash and swelling that began 24 hours earlier. He had no history of asthma or seasonal allergies. He was not sexually active. He did not have a history of tick exposure or genitourinary symptoms.
On physical examination, he had a fever of 102°F (38.9°C) and a rash on both feet (Figures 1 and 2). The rash was erythematous, purpuric, and palpable. His white blood cell count was 10,500 per mm3 (10.5 × 109 per L) without eosinophilia. Platelet and red blood cell counts were normal. A urinalysis showed a trace amount of blood but no red blood cells, casts, or protein. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody study results were negative. Chest radiography was performed (Figure 3).
Based on the patient's history, physical examination, and radiography findings, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Churg-Strauss syndrome.
B. Erythema multiforme.
C. Erythema nodosum.
D. Leukocytoclastic (hypersensitivity) vasculitis.
The answer is D: leukocyto
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