Am Fam Physician. 2025;112(5):563-564
Author disclosure: No relevant financial relationships.
A 71-year-old man presented with progressive black discoloration on the dorsal surfaces of both feet that had been present for 2 years. The discoloration was not associated with pain, burning, or itching. In the previous 6 months, the discoloration had advanced to his distal legs and then separately developed in the preauricular area.
The patient had a history of coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes, and chronic nodulocystic acne. He was a nonsmoker with no known drug allergies. He had no family history of similar skin findings.
QUESTION
Based on the patient's history and physical examination, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acanthosis nigricans.
B. Addison disease.
C. Chronic venous stasis.
D. Drug-induced pigmentation.
E. Melasma.
DISCUSSION
The correct answer is D: drug-induced pigmentation due to long-term minocycline use for treatment of chronic nodulocystic acne. The hyperpigmentation started on the dorsal aspect of the feet with a classic blue and black discoloration. With continued minocycline use, areas of pigmentation darkened and spread proximally.
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